"For if this was referring to merely "spiritual resurrection" then ONLY" the good" would be participating because only the "wise shall understand". Therefore this must be referring to another, literal resurrection of the body."
Jewish Platonism teaches an afterdeath 'resurrection' for BOTH good and evil souls. One unto reward, the other unto punishment.
This does not merely indicate a BODILY reward or punishment, but one of the soul.
Philo, like Plato, like Paul, like Mark, like Matthew, etc... equate death and ignorance to sleep, so why does Paul tell us (in 1 Cor 15) to 'awake to righteousnes'?
Here's something similar in the book of Daniel. ..
"And at that time shall Michael stand up, the great prince which standeth for the children of thy people: and there shall be a time of trouble, such as never was since there was a nation [even] to that same time: and at that time thy people shall be delivered, every one that shall be found
written in the book.
And many of them that sleep in the dust of the earth shall awake, some to everlasting life, and some to shame [and] everlasting contempt. And they that be wise shall shine as the brightness of the firmament; and they that turn many to righteousness as the stars for ever and ever."
Daniel doesn't just say "sleep", he says, "sleep in the dust of the earth". A phrase well known throughout the bible referring to those who are physically dead and buried.
Explain to me that if you believe the resurrection is purely spiritual, and that it is an "awakening to Christ consciousness", how the wicked or evil can participate in this? If the evil do not awaken spiritually, then how can they participate in a spiritual resurrection?
"Did you know that the Greeks are the ancestors of the Hebrews?"
Countless Christians want that to be true in order to vindicate the 'paper god', undermine Greek achievment, and establish the lineage and wisdom of a historical Jesus.
It's not just the Christians who believe this, some of the Orthodox Jews believe this also...
check this out...
Your quotes from Plato and Philo only support my arguments.
And I did answer your question regarding the "literary" parallels between Paul and the Greeks.
They are descended from the same people and the same information was passed down to them from generation to generation. And they both received their teachings from ancient Egypt. Plato visited Egypt on many occasions and learned many things from the Egyptian priests. Remember Solon, and the story of Atlantis?
you quoted Plato:
"Then he beheld and saw on one side the souls departing at either opening of heaven and earth when sentence had been given on them ; and at the two other openings other souls, some ascending out of the earth dusty and worn with travel, some descending out of heaven clean and bright.........And they told one another of what had happened by the way, those from below weeping and sorrowing at the remembrance of the things which they had endured and seen in their journey beneath the earth (now the journey lasted A THOUSAND YEARS), while those from
above were describing heavenly delights and visions of inconceivable beauty......Thus shall we live dear to one another and to the gods, both while remaining here and when, like conquerors in the games who go round to gather gifts, we receive our reward. And it shall be well
with us both in this life and in the pilgrimage of A THOUSAND YEARS which we have been describing."
In a way, you are being a "literalist" also. Because you are taking Plato's words here literally, when they are meant to be figurative. Plato also wrote using metaphor and allegory, as did Homer and Socrates.
I don't believe the1,000 years is to be taken literally as many Christians, do. I am an amillennialist, by definition.
Or are you merely quoting these passages to show the parallels between Paul and the Greeks?