The early German scholars believed Egyptian is a semitic language and basically approached it with that mind-set, correct me please if I am wrong.
The one criterion I am interested is the stative verb-form. It give a certain sense of realism to a story. When I use it instead of the preterite, I make the account more real. It is a dramatizing effect. So I am familiar with how it feels to use the stative in spoken language but an English speaker may not. Is the stative a tell-all characteristic of semitic languages or is there another criterion you think is more important. Also, why might Egyptian not be a semitic language?
Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at 01-Dec-18 16:19 by Manu.