I gave you a very ancient, pre-science elaboration of a, basically non-science environment, since it wasn't invented until Hipparchus, even before 1100 AD (or CE if you like). It takes time for humans to invent a practice that wasn't even known until the Greek intellectuals proposed it. Why then, if the ancients had no other recourse, could mythology be ruled out during the most elaborate stories, like the Iliad and the Odessey, were, to them, as scientific as was possible when no other means were available? How can you use 2019 deductions on a period that had no physical laws, not to mention, even an actual word "science" in their own language? It is absurd to even compare the difference of 2019 science with pre-science environments in those very ancient days. They gave their BEST DESCRIPTIONS OF THEIR so-called science of those times; describing every aspect of known activities and achievments by their OWN DESCRIPTIONS in their OWN WORDS IN THEIR OWN LANGUAGES. How is it possible to discredit those who cannot defend themselves since they are now dead and helpless to explain their WORLDVIEW and their ACHIEVEMENTS by their OWN STANDARDS of might and power wrought by the written word in myths and histories? It is absurd to put two very different styles of thought into the same category, unless their version of science is the information that they projected onto the public of their days. They too had a simplified version of science in their daily works using mathematics, measurements, calculations and conclusions about their world and time.
I just happened to notice the infancy of science in their days!!!
Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at 22-Aug-19 23:09 by Itatw70s.