The response was that, after it happened, the probability was 1, but the probability of it happening by way of a random event before the universe was created was zero.
Both Drayeye and Robert Jameson responded without a simple explanation as requested by me. I would like to know what is the correct answer and wording and a simple outline of why. Could anyone here on Science help here, please?
Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at 30-Jun-19 11:04 by Susan Doris.
|Probability question||761||Susan Doris||30-Jun-19 09:49|
|Re: Probability question||110||D-Archer||30-Jun-19 10:54|
|Re: Probability question||100||Susan Doris||30-Jun-19 11:06|
|Re: Probability question||100||Susan Doris||30-Jun-19 12:31|
|Re: The Weak Anthropic Principle||105||Nolondil||30-Jun-19 14:30|
|Re: The Weak Anthropic Principle||107||Susan Doris||30-Jun-19 15:20|
|Re: Probability question||109||Race Jackson||30-Jun-19 16:45|
|Re: Probability question||85||Susan Doris||01-Jul-19 05:18|
|Neither math nor science: a personal "agenda"||100||drrayeye||30-Jun-19 23:55|
|Re: Neither math nor science: a personal "agenda"||89||Susan Doris||01-Jul-19 05:29|
|Re: Probability question||93||Me||01-Jul-19 00:48|
|Re: Probability question||97||Susan Doris||01-Jul-19 08:16|
|Re: Probability question||152||Poster Boy||01-Jul-19 16:56|
|Re: Probability question||81||Poster Boy||01-Jul-19 15:45|
|Re: Probability question||82||Susan Doris||01-Jul-19 16:04|
|Re: Probability question||88||Poster Boy||01-Jul-19 16:16|