The response was that, after it happened, the probability was 1, but the probability of it happening by way of a random event before the universe was created was zero.
Both Drayeye and Robert Jameson responded without a simple explanation as requested by me. I would like to know what is the correct answer and wording and a simple outline of why. Could anyone here on Science help here, please?
Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at 30-Jun-19 11:04 by Susan Doris.
|Probability question||582||Susan Doris||30-Jun-19 09:49|
|Re: Probability question||50||D-Archer||30-Jun-19 10:54|
|Re: Probability question||46||Susan Doris||30-Jun-19 11:06|
|Re: Probability question||42||Susan Doris||30-Jun-19 12:31|
|Re: The Weak Anthropic Principle||49||Nolondil||30-Jun-19 14:30|
|Re: The Weak Anthropic Principle||41||Susan Doris||30-Jun-19 15:20|
|Re: Probability question||43||Race Jackson||30-Jun-19 16:45|
|Re: Probability question||33||Susan Doris||01-Jul-19 05:18|
|Neither math nor science: a personal "agenda"||43||drrayeye||30-Jun-19 23:55|
|Re: Neither math nor science: a personal "agenda"||36||Susan Doris||01-Jul-19 05:29|
|Re: Probability question||35||Me||01-Jul-19 00:48|
|Re: Probability question||38||Susan Doris||01-Jul-19 08:16|
|Re: Probability question||53||Poster Boy||01-Jul-19 16:56|
|Re: Probability question||31||Poster Boy||01-Jul-19 15:45|
|Re: Probability question||30||Susan Doris||01-Jul-19 16:04|
|Re: Probability question||31||Poster Boy||01-Jul-19 16:16|