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Spence's theory seems to hinge on the fact that at a certain time it was possible to determine true north by looking at when two stars were directly above each other.
But it seems to me that if the Egyptians were good astronomers (as is indicated by the alignments in the pyramids etc)then by careful observation they could have worked out true north at any period in time. What is she trying to prove?
Disregarding all the other evidence for the construction of the pyramids except this one, couldn't you argue along the same lines that the pyramids MUST have been built at a time when there was a definite star marking the pole, thus making north easy to determine? Or is my reasoning wrong about this??

Any feedback welcome!!
Julia

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Can Spence prove anything? 433 Julia C 21-Nov-00 19:56


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