Thanos writes “Regardless, I think it would be great if the original Sumerian versions refer to the Zagros mountains of Iran as this opens very interesting possibilities namely why the change from the Zagros being the "home of the gods" in the 3rd millennium (or earlier) to it at some point later being changed to Lebanon. Some interesting stuff in Iran.” (15-Apr-18 03:36)
Thanos writes in response to mine of 16-Apr-18 07:41 “The "if" has nothing to do with the word "Zagros" or the Sumerian word "Zag". The earlier Sumerian versions place the "Cedar Mountain" vaguely to the east which to the east along the Zagros mountains there were (are) cedar forests known in antiquity. Given this forest is "east" of Sumer it is assumed this is where it must be reffering to.” (16-Apr-18 19:39)
The "if" was mine and had everything to do with the name Zagros and its Sumerian origin in ZAG.
Another “if” coming up. If you would like more info on the vagueness or not of early Sumerian text, then find the line that is of interest to you and give me the transcript of the original Sumerian to look at. I found the lines that mention 7 times HUR-SAG in the transliteration linked by Eddie Larry and took these to be at the origin of your questioning about mountains - mountains being part of your original quote here above and response to Eddie, also here above. Where were the cedar forests? Did the translations of Gilgamesh actually mention in any manner that they were “to the east”? I haven’t studied it, and the only quote of that is of you by you. That’s how misunderstandings get propagated, by repetition of theories as fact, so it’s important to get that straight - by going to the source. It may well be referring to Lebanon. It may well be the logical conclusion. You may well be right. The Sumerian authors sometimes incorporated valuable signals that were not at surface level.
Never mind. Perhaps others reading this found my post to be in some way related to your subject and of interest. That’s all I ask.